John 1:1
Verse
1722
[list] En Ἐν within Prep |
746
[list] archē ἀρχῇ origin/source N-DFS |
1510
[list] ēn ἦν was V-IIA-3S |
3588
[list] ho ὁ the Art-NMS |
3056
[list] Logos Λόγος Word N-NMS |
2532
[list] kai καὶ and Conj |
3588
[list] ho ὁ the Art-NMS |
3056
[list] Logos Λόγος Word N-NMS |
1510
[list] ēn ἦν was V-IIA-3S |
4314
[list] pros πρὸς toward Prep |
3588
[list] ton τὸν the Art-AMS |
2316
[list] Theon Θεόν God N-AMS |
2532
[list] kai καὶ and Conj |
2316
[list] Theos Θεὸς God N-NMS |
1510
[list] ēn ἦν was V-IIA-3S |
3588
[list] ho ὁ the Art-NMS |
3056
[list] Logos Λόγος Word N-NMS |
The Word within The Writing
The Word was within the origin1 and the Word was toward the God2 and the Word was God.3The Hand Stretched into Time from the Origin. Movement slows as one draws closer to the Origin. The Way to The Rest must be made straight, where movement ceases.
In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God.
In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God.
Footnotes
1 | Greek Ἐν ἀρχῇ ἦν ὁ λόγος. The problem here is how abstract it is to say "In the beginning the Word was." Was what? It just was? The use of Ἐν meaning "in/within" is very much related to being within, inside, or in something else. One has to extend the meaning out to "in time" and then extend it further to "in the beginning of time." Is it time that John is referring to? Is John intentionlly being abstract with all this language? The verb ἦν "was" is used in this verse three times. Everywhere else in the NT that I can tell, the verb "was" is used there is object. There are no other Greek verses that leave the reader hanging at "was." In the origin. Strong’s #G746, arche. Head, source, origin. Feminine noun. The Hebrew idea of “beginning” is not a linear point but a head from whom all things flow and to whom all things flow, i.e. in a circuit. Throughout the LXX the Hebrew rosh (#7218) head, as well as techilla (#8462) to bore, pierce, is translated arche. The definite article the is apparently never used except in the case of a specific authority (Luke 20:20) or in Revelation where the Origin/Head, is spoken of three times (Rev. 3:14, 21:6, 22:13). |
2 | Strong’s #G2316, theos. In classical Greek this was the general word for god, gods (in plural form θεοῖσιν), divines, goddess (in the feminine), immortals, authorities, judges. Cf. . The question therefore is why Jesus and the Apostles did not use the word Yahweh anywhere in the NT. But "Yahweh" translated means "He is". For example, the egō eimi, “Jesus said to them, ‘Amen, amen, I am saying to yourselves before Abraham came to be, myself is.” John 8:58 literal The Greek myself is from egō (#G1473), I, myself. It is not a necessary word to form a verb construct, i.e. legō = I-am-saying. The reflexive form of this, ἐμοῦ, would also be translated myself. |
3 | Theos was the word. This is the exact order of the words. The nouns “theos” and “word” are in the nominative and thus there is no indication that the order should be backwards, i.e. “the word was God.” |